Being not much of an electronics guy, I do not know how to link an old posting in here. Thanks to whoever shows how, but I do not want to know. Just ran across a question I posed about a year ago on the unlikelihood (read impossibility) of 44.4% of all dice tosses being on-axis. Unfortunately for me, no one responded to the question, which I am re-introducing simply in an attempt to get a logical response or two. Here goes: Say you are shooter who always comes out of the 2V with the hope of tossing a bunch of "on-axis" fours and tens. Let's also say that your starting set of choice is always 2 up/4 looking at you and 2 up/ 6 looking. Just for the hell of it, let's say the shooter is Dave, with $5 on the line and $5 on both the 4 and the 10. Now suppose that your result is a hard four. Winner, winner chicken dinner. 2 up/3 looking and 2 up 4 looking. That's $9 and more to come. (1) Are you on-axis? (2) Do you have a primary face hit? The answers to these questions are actually (1) NO and (2) YES. How is this possible? Isn't it required that you be on-axis in order to have a primary face hit? After all, there are only 36 possible outcomes, and 16 of these are defined by the concept of PFH and on-axis, correct? Ponder on that. Note: I am NOT a DI basher. In fact, I suppose that "influence" is theoretically possible. I am however a strong believer that the entire concept of on-axis is grossly misunderstood, and that people who "sell" it are therefore shysters. Unless however it is more a case of stupidity than intentional misrepresentation. IOW, they don't know what the fuck they are talking about.